What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators?
3525-3775 kHz
3500-3525 kHz
3700-3750 kHz
3500-3550 kHz
B
5001 0
E1A02
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators?
3775-3800 kHz
3800-3850 kHz
3750-3775 kHz
3800-3825 kHz
C
5002 0
E1A03
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators?
7000-7025 kHz
7000-7050 kHz
7025-7050 kHz
7100-7150 kHz
A
5003 0
E1A04
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators?
14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz
14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz
14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz
D
5004 0
E1A05
What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized to Extra class control operators?
21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz
21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz
21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz
21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz
C
5005 0
E1A06
If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is accountable for the rules violation?
The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
The control operator of the originating station and conditionally the first forwarding station
The control operators of all the stations in the system
The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
B
5006 0
E1A07
If your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you should take?
Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
Discontinue forwarding all messages
A
5007 0
E1A08
What must an amateur licensee do if a spurious emission from his or her station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station?
Pay a fine each time it happens
Submit a written explanation to the FCC
Forfeit the station license if it happens more than once
Eliminate or reduce the interference
D
5008 0
E1A09
When may an amateur station exchange messages with an FCC-regulated non-amateur station?
Only during emergencies, RACES operations, Armed Forces Day Communications Tests or when the FCC authorizes such communications
Under no circumstances
Only during emergencies
Only during Public Service events, REACT operations, Field Day or when the FCC authorizes such communications
A
5009 0
E1A10
What type of amateur stations are permitted to operate in the 219-220-MHz band?
Any type
Only those participating in point-to-point fixed digital message forwarding systems
Only those licensed to Extra class operators
Only those using an effective radiated power of 25 watts PEP or less for digital communications
B
5010 0
E1A11
Why might the FCC modify an amateur station license?
To relieve crowding in certain bands
To better prepare for a time of national emergency
To enforce a radio quiet zone within one mile of an airport
To promote the public interest, convenience and necessity
D
5011 0
E1A12
If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft and is separate from the main radio installation, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
Its antenna must be separate from the main ship or aircraft antennas, transmitting only when the main radios are not in use
It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
A
5012 0
E1A13
What type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur communications from a vessel registered in the US while in international waters?
Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee
Any General class or higher license
An Extra class license
B
5013 0
E1A14
When may a station use special codes intended to obscure the meaning of messages?
Never under any circumstances
When a Special Temporary Authority has been obtained from the FCC
When an Extra class operator is controlling the station
When sending telecommand messages to a station in space operation
D
5014 0
E1B01
Which of the following factors might restrict the physical location of an amateur operator's station equipment or antenna structure?
The land may have environmental importance; or it is significant in American history, architecture or culture
The location's political or societal importance
The location's geographical or horticultural importance
The location's international importance, requiring consultation with one or more foreign governments before installation
A
5015 0
E1B02
Outside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an amateur station be located without concern for protecting the facility from harmful interference?
1 mile
3 miles
10 miles
30 miles
A
5016 0
E1B03
What must be done before an amateur station is placed within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
C
5017 0
E1B04
If an amateur station interferes with the reception of broadcast stations on a well-engineered receiver, during what hours shall the amateur station NOT be operated on the interfering frequencies?
Daily from 8 PM to 10:30 PM local time and additionally from 10:30 AM to 1 PM on Sunday
Daily from 6 PM to 12 AM local time and additionally from 8 AM to 5 PM on Sunday
Daily for any continuous span of at least 2.5 hours and for at least 5 continuous hours on Sunday
Daily for any continuous span of at least 6 hours and for at least 9 continuous hours on Sunday
A
5018 0
E1B05
If an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design, on what frequencies may the operation of the amateur station be restricted?
On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station
On all frequencies below 30 MHz
On all frequencies above 30 MHz
On the interfering amateur frequency or frequencies
D
5019 0
E1B06
When may a paid professional teacher be the control operator of an amateur station used in the teacher's classroom?
Only when the teacher is not paid during periods of time when an amateur station is used
Only when the classroom is in a correctional institution
Only when the station is used by that teacher as a part of classroom instruction at an educational institution
Only when the station is restricted to making contacts with similar stations at other educational institutions
C
5020 0
E1B07
Who may accept compensation when acting as a control operator in a classroom?
Any licensed amateur
Only teachers at educational institutions
Only teachers at correctional institutions
Only students at educational or correctional institutions
B
5021 0
E1B08
What limits must state and local authorities observe when legislating height and dimension restrictions for amateur antenna structures?
FAA regulations specify a minimum height for amateur antenna structures located near airports
FCC regulations specify a 200 foot minimum height for amateur antenna structures
State and local restrictions of amateur antenna structures are not allowed
PRB-1 specifies that authorities must reasonably accommodate the installation of amateur antenna structures
D
5022 0
E1B09
If an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what height restrictions apply?
The structure must not extend more that 200 feet above average height of the terrain
The structure must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at its site
There are no height restrictions since the structure would not be a hazard to aircraft in a valley or canyon
The structure must not extend more that 200 feet above the top of the valley or canyon
B
5023 0
E1B10
Other than the general limitations placed on amateur antenna structures, what special restrictions are placed on amateur repeater, beacon or auxiliary station antenna structures?
Approval from the FCC is required if the gain of the antenna is greater than 6 dBi
None
Approval from local authorities must be obtained prior to antenna installation
Such structures are limited to a height no greater than 20 feet above average terrain
B
5024 0
E1B11
What kind of approval is required before erecting an amateur antenna located near an airport as defined in the FCC rules?
The FAA and FCC both must approve any type of antenna structure located near an airport
Approval must be obtained from the airport manager
Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities
The FCC must approve an antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet above any natural or existing man made structure
D
5025 0
E1B12
What special restrictions does the FCC impose on amateur antennas mounted on motor vehicles?
Such antennas may not extend more than 15 feet above the roof of the vehicle
Complex antennas, such as a Yagi or quad beam, may not be installed on motor vehicles
None
Such antennas must comply with the recommendations of the vehicle manufacturer
C
5026 0
E1C01
What is an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued by certain foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the US
An FCC permit to allow a US licensed amateur to operate in a foreign nation, except Canada
An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle third-party traffic between the US and the amateur's own nation
An FCC agreement with another country allowing the passing of third-party traffic between amateurs of the two nations
A
5027 0
E1C02
Who is eligible for an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
Anyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government
Any non-US citizen holding an amateur license issued by a foreign government with which the US has a reciprocal operating agreement
Anyone holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government with which the US has a reciprocal operating agreement
Any non-US citizen holding a valid amateur or shortwave listener's license issued by a foreign government
B
5028 0
E1C03
What operator frequency privileges are authorized by an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent US amateur license, unless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement on the permit
Those that the holder of the permit would have in their own country
Those authorized to US amateurs that the holder of the permit would have in their own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
Only those frequencies approved by the International Amateur Radio Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise
C
5029 0
E1C04
What additional station identification, in addition to his or her own call sign, does an alien operator supply when operating in the US under an FCC reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
No additional identification is required
The grid-square locator closest to his or her present location is included before the call
The serial number of the permit and the call-letter district number of the station location is included before the call
The letter-numeral indicating the station location in the US is included before their own call and closest city and state
D
5030 0
E1C05
When may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur license obtain an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit?
Never; US citizens are not eligible
When the citizen has imported his or her equipment from the foreign country
When the citizen has never held a US amateur license
When the citizen has no current US amateur license
A
5031 0
E1C06
What form would a citizen of a foreign country use to apply for a reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
FCC Form 610
Department of Immigration Form 610
FCC Form 610-A
FCC Alien Registration Form ARF-1
C
5032 0
E1C07
Which of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur from being Eligible for a US reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee?
Holding only an amateur license issued by a country but not being a citizen of that country
Citizenship in their own country but not US citizenship
Holding only an amateur license issued by their own country but holding no US amateur license
Holding an amateur license issued by their own country granting them frequency privileges beyond US Extra class privileges
A
5033 0
E1C08
What special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a Canadian amateur license may operate in the US?
All aliens, including Canadians, must obtain a reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee
No special document is required
The citizen must have an FCC-issued validation of their Canadian license
The citizen must have an FCC-issued Certificate of US License Grant without Examination to operate for a period longer than ten days
B
5034 0
E1C09
What is the minimum age for which a reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee may be issued to a foreign amateur?
16 years for Canadian citizens, 18 years for all others
18 years
21 years
There is no minimum age
D
5035 0
E1C10
How long from the date of issue is a reciprocal permit valid?
Thirty days
Ninety days
One year
Ten years
C
5036 0
E1C11
What happens if a person holding a reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee qualifies for, and is granted a US amateur license?
The operator must use the US call sign when operating within their US license privileges, and the foreign license call sign otherwise
The reciprocal permit becomes void and the operator is restricted to the privileges of the US license
The operator may use either his/her US or foreign call sign when operating within the US license privileges
The US amateur license will be voided as soon as the FCC audits their amateur license database
B
5037 0
E1D01
What is RACES?
An amateur network for providing emergency communications during athletic races
The Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services
An amateur network for providing emergency communications during boat or aircraft races
B
5038 0
E1D02
What is the purpose of RACES?
To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies
To provide emergency communications for boat or aircraft races
To provide routine and emergency communications for athletic races
To provide routine and emergency military communications
A
5039 0
E1D03
With what other organization must an amateur station be registered before RACES registration is permitted?
The Amateur Radio Emergency Service
The US Department of Defense
A civil defense organization
The FCC Field Operations Bureau
C
5040 0
E1D04
Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
Only Extra class amateur stations
Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Novice)
Any licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization
Any licensed amateur station (except a station licensed to a Novice) certified by the responsible civil defense organization
C
5041 0
E1D05
Application for modification of a RACES license must be made on what FCC form, and sent to what FCC office?
Form 610, sent to Washington, DC
Form 610, sent to Gettysburg, PA
Form 610-A, sent to Washington, DC
Form 610-B, sent to Gettysburg, PA
D
5042 0
E1D06
Who may be the control operator of a RACES station?
Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice
Only an Extra class licensee
Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license other than Novice and is certified by a civil defense organization
Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur license and is certified by a civil defense organization
D
5043 0
E1D07
What additional operator privileges are granted to an Extra class operator registered with RACES?
None
CW operations on 5167.5 kHz
Unattended HF packet-radio station operations
237-MHz civil defense band operations
A
5044 0
E1D08
What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation?
Only those frequencies authorized to civil defense organizations
Only those frequencies authorized to emergency military communications
Only the top 25 kHz of each amateur frequency band
All frequencies available to the amateur service
D
5045 0
E1D09
What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies available for RACES operation?
An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers under the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934
An emergency in only one state in the US would limit RACES operations to a single HF frequency band
An emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES operations to a single VHF band
An emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life
A
5046 0
E1D10
With what stations may amateur RACES stations communicate?
Any RACES stations and any amateur stations except stations licensed to Novices
Any RACES stations and certain other stations authorized by the responsible civil defense official
Any amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications Service
Any amateur station and any military emergency station
B
5047 0
E1D11
What are permissible communications in RACES?
Any type of communications when there is no emergency
Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications
National defense or immediate safety of people and property and communications authorized by the area civil defense organization
National defense and security or immediate safety of people and property communications authorized by the President
C
5048 0
E1E01
What is the Amateur Satellite Service?
A radio navigation service using stations on earth satellites for the same purposes as those of the amateur service
A radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for weather information gathering
A radio communication service using stations on earth satellites for the same purpose as those of the amateur service
A radio location service using stations on earth satellites for amateur radar experimentation
C
5049 0
E1E02
Which HF amateur bands have frequencies available for space operation?
Only 40 m, 20 m, 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m
Only 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m and 10 m
Only 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m
All HF bands, but only in the Extra class segments
A
5050 0
E1E03
Which amateur bands are available for space operation?
Only 17 m, 15 m, 12 m, 10 m, 6 mm, 4 mm, 2 mm and 1 mm and certain frequency segments
Only 17 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m
Only 17 m, 15 m, 2 m, 1.25 m, 6 mm, 4 mm, 2 mm and 1 mm
All amateur bands from 17 m and above
A
5051 0
E1E04
What type of amateur station operation transmits communications used to initiate, modify or terminate the functions of a space station?
Space operation
Telecommand operation
Earth operation
Control operation
B
5052 0
E1E05
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
Any except those of Novice licensees
Only those of Extra class licensees
Only a station operated by the space station licensee
Any station designated by the space station licensee
D
5053 0
E1E06
What term does the FCC use for space-to-earth transmissions used to communicate the results of measurements made by a space station?
Data transmission
Frame check sequence
Telemetry
Telecommand
C
5054 0
E1E07
What is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station that is more than 50 km above the earth's surface?
EME station operation
Space station operation
Downlink station operation
Ionospheric station operation
B
5055 0
E1E08
Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation?
Any except those of Novice licensees
Only those of General, Advanced or Extra class licensees
Only those of Extra class licensees
Any amateur station
D
5056 0
E1E09
Before initiating space station transmissions, by when must the licensee of the station give the FCC prior written pre-space notification?
Before 3 months and before 72 hours
Before 6 months and before 3 months
Before 12 months and before 3 months
Before 27 months and before 5 months
D
5057 0
E1E10
After space station transmissions are initiated, by when must the licensee of the station give the FCC written in-space notification?
Within 24 hours
Within 72 hours
Within 7 days
Within 30 days
C
5058 0
E1E11
After space station transmissions are terminated, by when must the licensee of the station normally give the FCC written post-space notification?
No later than 48 hours
No later than 72 hours
No later than 7 days
No later than 3 months
D
5059 0
E1E12
What term describes an amateur station located on or within 50 km of Earth's surface intended for communications with space stations?
Telecommand station
Earth station
Telemetry station
Auxiliary station
B
5060 0
E1F01
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A person who has volunteered to administer amateur license Examinations
A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur license examinations
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur license examinations given by Volunteer Examiners
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate the preparation of amateur license examinations
C
5061 0
E1F02
Which of the following is NOT among the functions of a VEC?
Prepare and administer amateur operator license examinations, grade Examinee's answers and inform examinees of their pass/fail results
Collect FCC Forms 610 documents and test results from the administering VEs
Assure that all desiring an amateur operator license examination are registered without regard to race, sex, religion or national origin
Cooperate in maintaining a pool of questions for each written amateur Examination element
A
5062 0
E1F03
Which of the following is NOT among the qualifying requirements to be a VEC?
Be an organization that exists for the purpose of furthering the amateur service
Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur station Equipment or amateur license preparation materials
Agree to coordinate examinations for all classes of amateur operator licenses
Agree to administer amateur operator license examinations in accordance with FCC Rules throughout at least one call-letter district
B
5063 0
E1F04
Under what circumstances may an organization engaged in the manufacture of equipment used in connection with amateur station transmissions be a VEC?
Under no circumstances
If the organization's amateur-related sales are small in comparison to its overall sales
If the organization is manufacturing very specialized amateur Equipment
Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest
D
5064 0
E1F05
Under what circumstances may an organization engaged in the preparation or distribution of any publication used in preparation for obtaining an amateur operator license be a VEC?
Under no circumstances
Only if the organization's amateur-related sales are small in comparison to its overall sales
Only if the organization is selling its amateur-related publications at cost to examinees
Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest
D
5065 0
E1F06
What organization coordinates the preparing and administration of amateur license examinations?
The FCC
A VEC
A group of three or more volunteers
A local radio club
B
5066 0
E1F07
Under what circumstance may an employee of a company engaged in the manufacture of amateur transmitting equipment become a VE?
Any person may become a VE regardless of their employment
Only if the person receives special permission from their employer
Only if the person receives special permission from their accrediting VEC
Only if the person does not normally communicate with the manufacturing department
D
5067 0
E1F08
Who may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket expenses incurred in preparing, processing or administering amateur license examinations?
The examinees
The FCC
The National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
The US Department of the Treasury
A
5068 0
E1F09
Under what circumstances may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a Volunteer Examiner?
If the VEC determines that questions of the person's integrity or honesty could compromise amateur license examinations
If the VEC determines that the person is a Volunteer Examiner for another VEC
If the prospective VE is not a member of a club actively engaged in the preparation and administration of amateur license examinations
If the prospective VE is a citizen of a foreign country
A
5069 0
E1F10
What action must a VEC take against a VE who accepts reimbursement and fails to provide the annual expense certification?
Suspend the VE's accreditation for 1 year
Disaccredit the VE
Request that the FCC suspend the VE's amateur license
Suspend the VE's accreditation for 6 months
B
5070 0
E1F11
Where are the questions listed that must be used in all written US amateur license examinations?
In the instructions each VEC gives to their VEs
In an FCC-maintained question pool
In the VEC-maintained question pool
In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
C
5071 0
E1G01
What is an accredited VE?
An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow VEs to administer amateur license examinations
An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator license examinations
An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee
An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer amateur license examinations
B
5072 0
E1G02
What is the VE accreditation process?
General and higher class licensees are automatically allowed to conduct amateur license examinations once their license is granted
The FCC tests volunteers who wish to conduct amateur license Examinations
A prospective VE requests permission from three or more already accredited VEs to administer amateur license examinations
Each VEC ensures its Volunteer Examiner applicants meet FCC requirements to serve as VEs
D
5073 0
E1G03
What are the minimum requirements for an amateur licensee to receive VE accreditation?
A General class license; 18 years old; no conflict of interest; never had an amateur license suspended or revoked
An Advanced class license; 16 years old; no conflict of interest
An Extra class license; 18 years old; never had an amateur license suspended or revoked
A General class license; 16 years old; no conflict of interest; never had an amateur license suspended or revoked
A
5074 0
E1G04
Which persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited?
Persons holding less than an Advanced class license
Persons less than 21 years of age
Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or revoked
Persons who are employees of the federal government
C
5075 0
E1G05
What type of expense records must be maintained by a VE who accepts reimbursement?
All out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements from each examination session
All out-of-pocket expenses only
Reimbursements from examiners only
FCC reimbursements only
A
5076 0
E1G06
If reimbursement for an examination session is accepted by a VE, for what period of time must the VE maintain records of out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements?
1 year
2 years
3 years
4 years
C
5077 0
E1G07
If reimbursement for an examination session is accepted by a VE, by what date following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted must a VE forward an expense certification to the VEC?
December 15
January 15
April 15
October 15
B
5078 0
E1G08
For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket Expenses?
Preparing, processing or administering amateur license Examinations
Teaching and administering amateur license study courses
None; a VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses
Purchasing and distributing amateur license preparation materials
A
5079 0
E1G09
How much money beyond reimbursement for out-of-pocket expenses may a person accept for serving as a VE?
None
Up to the national minimum hourly wage times the number of hours spent serving as a VE
Up to the maximum fee per applicant set by the FCC each year
As much as applicants are willing to donate
A
5080 0
E1G10
Who may prepare an Element 3(A) amateur operator license examination?
A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
A General, Advanced, or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
An Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
B
5081 0
E1G11
Who may prepare an Element 3(B) amateur operator license examination?
An Extra class VE who selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
An Advanced or Extra class VE or a qualified supplier that selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
The, FCC which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
C
5082 0
E1G12
Who may prepare an Element 4(A) or 4(B) amateur operator license Examination?
The FCC, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
An Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin
An Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool
D
5083 0
E1G13
Who determines where and when examinations for amateur operator licenses are to be administered?
The FCC
The National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
The applicants
The administering Volunteer Examiners
D
5084 0
E1H01
What amateur operator license examination credit must be given for a valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)?
Only the written elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed
Only the telegraphy elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed
Each element the CSCE indicates the examinee passed
No credit
C
5085 0
E1H02
Where must Volunteer Examiners be while they are conducting an amateur license examination?
They must all be present and observing the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination
They must all leave the room after handing out the exams to allow the candidate(s) to concentrate on the exam material
They may be anywhere as long as at least one VE is present and is observing the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination
They may be anywhere as long as they are listed as having participated in the examination
A
5086 0
E1H03
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
The VEC coordinating the session
The FCC
The administering Volunteer Examiners
The Volunteer Examiner in charge of the session
C
5087 0
E1H04
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
B
5088 0
E1H05
What must be done with the test papers of each element completed by the candidates(s) at an amateur operator license examination?
They must be collected and graded by the administering VEs within 10 days of the examination
They must be collected and sent to the coordinating VEC for grading within 10 days of the examination
They must be collected and graded immediately by the administering VEs
They must be collected and sent to the FCC for grading within 10 days of the examination
C
5089 0
E1H06
What must the VEs do if an examinee for an amateur operator license does not score a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade?
Return the application document to the examinee and inform the Examinee of the grade(s)
Return the application document to the examinee and inform the Examinee which questions were incorrectly answered
Simply inform the examinee of the failure(s)
Inform the examinee which questions were incorrectly answered and show how the questions should have been answered
A
5090 0
E1H07
What must the VEs do if an examinee for an amateur operator license scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade?
Return the application document to the examinee and inform the Examinee of the percentage of questions answered correctly
Simply inform the examinee of the upgrade
Issue the examinee the upgraded license
Certify the qualification for the new license on the examinee's application document
D
5091 0
E1H08
What must the VEs do if one or more examinees upgrade at an amateur operator license examination session?
Submit the applications and test papers from upgrading examinees to the coordinating VEC within 10 days of the session
Submit the applications and test papers from upgrading examinees to the FCC within 10 days of the session
Submit all applications and a copy of all CSCEs given at the session to the FCC within 30 days of the session
Submit all applications and test papers from the session to the coordinating VEC within 30 days of the session
A
5092 0
E1H09
What minimum credentials must a person have to administer an examination for a Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus class license?
Any class of amateur operator license the coordinating VEC designates as an examiner
A General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license and VEC accreditation
A General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license and FCC accreditation
A General, Advanced or Extra class amateur operator license
B
5093 0
E1H10
What minimum credentials must a person have to administer an examination for a General, Advanced or Extra class operator license?
Any class of amateur operator license the coordinating VEC designates as an examiner
An Extra class amateur operator license
FCC accreditation and an Extra class amateur operator license
VEC accreditation and an Extra class amateur operator license
D
5094 0
E1H11
What document allows an amateur who has passed an examination for, but has not yet received an FCC grant of, a higher class license to operate using the privileges of the new license?
A Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) issued by the VE Team that administered the examination
An FCC Form 610 certified for the higher class license by the VE Team that administered the examination
The list of upgrading applicants sent to the VEC coordinating the Examination by the administering VE Team
The list of upgrading applicants sent to the FCC from the VEC coordinating the examination
A
5095 0
E1H12
How must an Advanced class amateur holding a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for an Extra class license identify his or her station when using Extra class license privileges?
An identifier code of "Extra" must be used as a prefix to the amateur's call sign
An identifier code of "AE" must be used as a suffix to the amateur's call sign
The phrase "operating temporary Extra" must be added as a suffix to the amateur's call sign
The identifier code of "E" must be added as a prefix to the amateur's call sign
B
5096 0
E2A01
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
From north to south
C
5097 0
E2A02
What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
From north to south
From west to east
From east to west
From south to north
A
5098 0
E2A03
What is the period of an amateur satellite?
The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit
The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
C
5099 0
E2A04
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode A in amateur satellite operations?
Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters
Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters
Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters
Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters
D
5100 0
E2A05
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode B in amateur satellite operations?
Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 2 meters
Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters
Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters
Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters
B
5101 0
E2A06
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode J in amateur satellite operations?
Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 2 meters
Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 10 meters
Satellite receiving on 2 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters
Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and transmitting on 10 meters
C
5102 0
E2A07
What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode L in amateur satellite operations?
Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 10 meters
Satellite receiving on 10 meters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters
Satellite receiving on 70 centimeters and retransmitting on 23 centimeters
Satellite receiving on 23 centimeters and retransmitting on 70 centimeters
D
5103 0
E2A08
What is a linear transponder?
A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals
A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a certain passband
An amplifier that varies its output linearly in response to input signals
A device which responds to satellite telecommands and is used to activate a linear sequence of events
B
5104 0
E2A09
What is the name of the effect which causes the downlink frequency of a satellite to vary by several kHz during a low-earth orbit because the distance between the satellite and ground station is changing?
The Kepler effect
The Bernoulli effect
The Einstein effect
The Doppler effect
D
5105 0
E2A10
Why does the received signal from a Phase 3 amateur satellite exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect?
Because the satellite is rotating
Because of ionospheric absorption
Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
Because of the Doppler effect
A
5106 0
E2A11
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
A nonpolarized antenna
A circularly polarized antenna
An isotropic antenna
A log-periodic dipole array
B
5107 0
E2B01
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television system?
30
60
90
120
A
5108 0
E2B02
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame?
30
60
525
1050
C
5109 0
E2B03
How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television system?
By scanning the field from top to bottom
By scanning the field from bottom to top
By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next
D
5110 0
E2B04
What is blanking in a video signal?
Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left and from bottom to top
Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
Transmitting a black and white test pattern
B
5111 0
E2B05
What is the standard video voltage level between the sync tip and the whitest white at TV camera outputs and modulator inputs?
1 volt peak-to-peak
120 IEEE units
12 volts DC
5 volts RMS
A
5112 0
E2B06
What is the bandwidth of a vestigial sideband AM fast-scan television transmission?
3 kHz
10 kHz
25 kHz
6 MHz
D
5113 0
E2B07
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black?
0%
12.5%
70%
100%
C
5114 0
E2B08
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
0%
12.5%
70%
100%
B
5115 0
E2B09
What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
0%
12.5%
75%
100%
C
5116 0
E2B10
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television
Immunity from fading due to limiting
Poor weak-signal performance
Greater signal bandwidth
Greater complexity of receiving equipment
A
5117 0
E2B11
Which of the following is NOT a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
Amplitude modulation of the video carrier
Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
A separate VHF or UHF audio link
Frequency modulation of the video carrier
A
5118 0
E2C01
What would be the ideal operating strategy for a worldwide DX contest during a solar minimum instead of a solar maximum?
160-40 meters would be emphasized during the evening; 20 meters during daylight hours
There would be little to no strategic difference
80 meters would support worldwide communication during mid-day hours
10 and 15 meters should be tried one hour before sunset
A
5119 0
E2C02
When operating during a contest, which of these standards should you generally follow?
Always listen before transmitting, be courteous and do not cause harmful interference to other communications
Always reply to other stations calling CQ at least as many times as you call CQ
When initiating a contact, always reply with the call sign of the station you are calling followed by your own call sign
Always include your signal report, name and transmitter power output in any exchange with another station
A
5120 0
E2C03
What is one of the main purposes for holding on-the-air operating contests?
To test the dollar-to-feature value of station equipment during difficult operating circumstances
To enhance the communicating and operating skills of amateurs in readiness for an emergency
To measure the ionospheric capacity for refracting RF signals under varying conditions
To demonstrate to the FCC that amateur station operation is possible during difficult operating circumstances
B
5121 0
E2C04
Which of the following is typical of operations during an international amateur DX contest?
Calling CQ is always done on an odd minute and listening is always done on an even minute
Contacting a DX station is best accomplished when the WWV K index is above a reading of 8
Some DX operators use split frequency operations (transmitting on a frequency different from the receiving frequency)
DX contacts during the day are never possible because of known band attenuation from the sun
C
5122 0
E2C05
If a DX station asks for your grid square locator, what should be your reply?
The square of the power fed to the grid of your final amplifier and your current city, state and country
The DX station's call sign followed by your call sign and your RST signal report
The subsection of the IARU region in which you are located based upon dividing the entire region into a grid of squares 10 km wide
Your geographic "Maidenhead" grid location (e.g., FN31AA) based on your current latitude and longitude
D
5123 0
E2C06
What does a "Maidenhead" grid square refer to?
A two-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, as part of a world wide numbering system
A one-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, beginning at the South Pole
An antenna made of wire grid used to amplify low-angle incoming signals while reducing high-angle incoming signals
An antenna consisting of a screen or grid positioned directly beneath the radiating element
A
5124 0
E2C07
Which of the following items of information are typically included in a contest exchange?
Both stations' call signs and the station antenna type
Both stations' call signs and an RST signal report
The originating station's call sign and transmitter's manufacturer
The originating station's call sign and operator's first name
B
5125 0
E2C08
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to find the highest level of contest activity?
At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
At the bottom of each band, usually in the weak signal segment
In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
C
5126 0
E2C09
Which of the following frequency ranges is reserved by "gentlemen's agreement" for DX contacts during international 6-meter contests?
50.000 to 50.025 MHz
50.050 to 50.075 MHz
50.075 to 50.100 MHz
50.100 to 50.125 MHz
D
5127 0
E2C10
If you are in the US calling a station in Texas on a frequency of 1832 kHz and a station replies that you are "in the window," what does this mean?
You are operating out of the band privileges of your license
You are calling at the wrong time of day to be within the window of frequencies that can be received in Texas at that time
You are transmitting in a frequency segment that is reserved for international DX contacts by "gentlemen's agreement"
Your modulation has reached an undesirable level and you are interfering with another contact
C
5128 0
E2C11
During low sunspot activity, if DX signals become weak and fluttery from Europe across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what could you do to find other European DX stations?
Switch to a higher frequency HF band, because the MUF has increased
Switch to a lower frequency HF band, because the MUF has decreased
Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
B
5129 0
E2D01
What is the most common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz?
DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK (frequency-shift keying) of an RF carrier
AFSK (audio frequency-shift keying) of an FM signal
Key-operated on/off switching of an RF carrier
B
5130 0
E2D02
What do the letters "FEC" mean as they relate to AMTOR operation?
Forward Error Correction
First Error Correction
Fatal Error Correction
Final Error Correction
A
5131 0
E2D03
How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
By transmitting blocks of 3 data characters from the sending station to the receiving station which the receiving station acknowledges
By transmitting a special FEC algorithm which the receiving station uses for data validation
By transmitting each data character twice, since there is no specific acknowledgment of reception
By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
C
5132 0
E2D04
What does "CMD:" mean when it is displayed on the video monitor of a packet station?
The TNC is ready to exit the packet terminal program
The TNC is in command mode, ready to receive instructions from the keyboard
The TNC will exit to the command mode on the next keystroke
The TNC is in KISS mode running TCP/IP, ready for the next command
B
5133 0
E2D05
What is the Baudot code?
A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data systems using seven data bits
A binary code consisting of eight data bits
An alternate name for Morse code
The "International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2" (ITA2) which uses five data bits
D
5134 0
E2D06
If an oscilloscope is connected to a TNC or terminal unit and is displaying two crossed ellipses, one of which suddenly disappears, what would this indicate about the observed signal?
The phenomenon known as "selective fading" has occurred
One of the signal filters has saturated
The receiver should be retuned, as it has probably moved at least 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
The mark and space signal have been inverted and the receiving Equipment has not yet responded to the change
A
5135 0
E2D07
Which of the following systems is used to transmit high-quality still images by radio?
AMTOR
Baudot RTTY
AMTEX
Facsimile
D
5136 0
E2D08
What special restrictions are imposed on facsimile (fax) transmissions?
None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
They are allowed in phone band segments if their bandwidth is no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
They are not permitted above 54 MHz
C
5137 0
E2D09
What is the name for a bulletin transmission system that includes a special header to allow receiving stations to determine if the bulletin has been previously received?
ARQ mode A
FEC mode B
AMTOR
AMTEX
D
5138 0
E2D10
What is a Packet Cluster Bulletin Board?
A packet bulletin board devoted primarily to serving a special interest group
A group of general-purpose packet bulletin boards linked together in a "cluster"
A special interest cluster of packet bulletin boards devoted entirely to packet radio computer communications
A special interest telephone/modem bulletin board devoted to amateur DX operations
A
5139 0
E2D11
Which of the following statements comparing HF and 2-meter packet operations is NOT true?
HF packet typically uses an FSK signal with a data rate of 300 bauds; 2-meter packet uses an AFSK signal with a data rate of 1200 bauds
HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use the same code for information exchange
HF packet is limited to Extra class amateur licensees; 2 meter packet is open to all but Novice class amateur licensees
HF packet operations are limited to "CW/Data"-only band segments; 2- meter packet is allowed wherever FM operations are allowed
C
5140 0
E3A01
What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by moonbounce?
500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
2000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee
5000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee
Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window
D
5141 0
E3A02
What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal?
A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
A fluttery, rapid irregular fading
A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
B
5142 0
E3A03
What are the best days to schedule EME contacts?
When the moon is at perigee
When the moon is full
When the moon is at apogee
When the weather at both stations is clear
A
5143 0
E3A04
What type of receiving system is required for EME communications?
Equipment with very low power output
Equipment with very low dynamic range
Equipment with very low gain
Equipment with very low noise figures
D
5144 0
E3A05
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an earth-moon-earth contact?
Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute
Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes
A
5145 0
E3A06
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact?
Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute
Two and one half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
Five minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes
C
5146 0
E3A07
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 2-meter band?
144.000 - 144.001 MHz
144.000 - 144.100 MHz
144.100 - 144.300 MHz
145.000 - 145.100 MHz
B
5147 0
E3A08
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 70-cm band?
430.000 - 430.150 MHz
430.100 - 431.100 MHz
431.100 - 431.200 MHz
432.000 - 432.100 MHz
D
5148 0
E3A09
When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
The E layer
The F1 layer
The F2 layer
The D layer
A
5149 0
E3A10
Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
1.8 - 1.9 MHz
10 - 14 MHz
28 - 148 MHz
220 - 450 MHz
C
5150 0
E3A11
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting a meteor-scatter contact?
Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute
15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds and then receives for the following 15 seconds
30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds and then receives for the following 30 seconds
C
5151 0
E3B01
What is transequatorial propagation?
Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
Propagation between two points at approximately the same latitude on the magnetic equator
Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
A
5152 0
E3B02
What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
1000 miles
2500 miles
5000 miles
7500 miles
C
5153 0
E3B03
What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
Morning
Noon
Afternoon or early evening
Late at night
C
5154 0
E3B04
What type of propagation is probably occurring if a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
Long-path
Sporadic-E
Transequatorial
Auroral
A
5155 0
E3B05
On what amateur bands can long-path propagation provide signal Enhancement?
160 to 40 meters
30 to 10 meters
160 to 10 meters
160 to 6 meters
D
5156 0
E3B06
What amateur band consistently yields long-path enhancement using a modest antenna of relatively high gain?
80 meters
20 meters
10 meters
6 meters
B
5157 0
E3B07
What is the typical reason for hearing an echo on the received signal of a station in Europe while directing your HF antenna toward the station?
The station's transmitter has poor frequency stability
The station's transmitter is producing spurious emissions
Auroral conditions are causing a direct and a long-path reflected signal to be received
There are two signals being received, one from the most direct path and one from long-path propagation
D
5158 0
E3B08
What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the earth's terminator?
Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line
D
5159 0
E3B09
At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent?
Twilight, at sunrise and sunset
When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
A
5160 0
E3B10
What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
At midday the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
At twilight solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF
At darkness solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
At midafternoon the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
B
5161 0
E3B11
What communications are possible during gray-line propagation?
Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band
Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands
Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands
Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 10- and 15-meter bands
C
5162 0
E4A01
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain oscilloscope?
A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the time domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the frequency domain
A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
C
5163 0
E4A02
What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
Amplitude
Voltage
Resonance
Frequency
D
5164 0
E4A03
What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display?
Amplitude
Duration
Frequency
Time
A
5165 0
E4A04
Which test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
A spectrum analyzer
A wattmeter
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
A
5166 0
E4A05
Which test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products from an SSB transmitter?
A wattmeter
A spectrum analyzer
A logic analyzer
A time-domain reflectometer
B
5167 0
E4A06
Which of the following is NOT something you would determine with a spectrum analyzer?
The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2- meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The speed at which a transceiver switches from transmit to receive when being used for packet radio
The spectral output of a transmitter
C
5168 0
E4A07
What is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the output from a VHF transmitter?
There are no advantages; an inexpensive oscilloscope can display the same information
It displays all frequency components of the transmitted signal
It displays a time-varying representation of the modulation Envelope
It costs much less than any other instrumentation useful for such measurements
B
5169 0
E4A08
What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring the status of a logic circuit?
It has many more leads to connect to the circuit than a voltmeter
It can be used to test analog and digital circuits
It can read logic circuit voltage more accurately than a voltmeter
It is smaller and shows a simplified readout
D
5170 0
E4A09
Which test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low digital states?
An ohmmeter
An electroscope
A logic probe
A Wheatstone bridge
C
5171 0
E4A10
What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit?
A short-circuit fault
An open-circuit fault
The resistance between logic modules
The high and low logic states
D
5172 0
E4A11
Which test instrument besides an oscilloscope is used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit?
A logic probe
An ohmmeter
An electroscope
A Wheatstone bridge
A
5173 0
E4B01
What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver?
Dynamic range and third-order intercept
Cost and availability
Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
Bandwidth and noise figure
D
5174 0
E4B02
What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver?
The noise floor of the receiver
The power-supply output ripple
The two-tone intermodulation distortion
The input impedance to the detector
A
5175 0
E4B03
Selectivity can be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver by using what means?
An audio filter
An additional RF amplifier stage
A preselector
An additional IF amplifier stage
C
5176 0
E4B04
What occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver?
Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
Output-offset overshoot
Cross-modulation distortion
Filter ringing
D
5177 0
E4B05
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an amateur RTTY receiver?
100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz
B
5178 0
E4B06
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband phone receiver?
1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
4.8 kHz
B
5179 0
E4B07
What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
Output-offset overshoot
Filter ringing
Thermal-noise distortion
Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
D
5180 0
E4B08
How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal?
It should be slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth
It should be approximately half the received-signal bandwidth
It should be approximately twice the received-signal bandwidth
It should be approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth
A
5181 0
E4B09
What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an FM-phone receiver?
1 kHz
2.4 kHz
4.2 kHz
15 kHz
D
5182 0
E4B10
Selectivity can be achieved in the IF circuitry of a communications receiver by what means?
Vary the supply voltage to the local oscillator circuitry
Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor followed by a capacitor of the proper value
Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the audio stage only
Incorporate a high-Q filter
D
5183 0
E4B11
What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver?
The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to which the receiver can be tuned
The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver, referenced to one milliwatt
The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products
The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning knob
C
5184 0
E4B12
What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?
Cross modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted
Cross modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
A
5185 0
E4B13
What defines the noise figure of a communications receiver?
The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna
The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz away from the carrier frequency
The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver
The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close to the desired one
C
5186 0
E4C01
What is one of the most significant problems associated with mobile transceivers?
Ignition noise
Doppler shift
Radar interference
Mechanical vibrations
A
5187 0
E4C02
What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile transceiver?
Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other
Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces
Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring
A
5188 0
E4C03
Where can ferrite beads be installed to suppress ignition noise in a mobile transceiver?
In the resistive high-voltage cable
Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor
In the primary and secondary ignition leads
In the antenna lead to the transceiver
C
5189 0
E4C04
How can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting metal surfaces in a vehicle reduce ignition noise?
It reduces the frequency of the ignition spark
It helps radiate the ignition noise away from the vehicle
It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the vehicle
It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body
C
5190 0
E4C05
How can alternator whine be minimized?
By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest possible path
By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the shortest possible path
By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's DC power lead to the vehicle's electrical system
By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead
B
5191 0
E4C06
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
By connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible path and installing a blocking capacitor in both leads
By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads
D
5192 0
E4C07
What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
Sunspots
Thunderstorms
Airplanes
Meteor showers
B
5193 0
E4C08
How can you determine if a line-noise interference problem is being generated within your home?
Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer
Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope
Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-operated radio
Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer
C
5194 0
E4C09
How can you reduce noise from an electric motor?
Install a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor
Install a brute-force, AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
Install a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
Use a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
B
5195 0
E4C10
What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitter?
A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
An electrical-sparking signal
A differential-mode signal at the AC-line frequency
Harmonics of the AC-line frequency
A
5196 0
E4C11
What type of equipment cannot be used to locate power line noise?
An AM receiver with a directional antenna
An FM receiver with a directional antenna
A hand-held RF sniffer
An ultrasonic transducer, amplifier and parabolic reflector
B
5197 0
E4D01
What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop
It is non-rotatable
It receives equally well in all directions
It is practical for use only on VHF bands
A
5198 0
E4D02
What pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna?
One which is non-cardioid
One with good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios
One with good top-to-bottom and side-to-side ratios
One with shallow nulls
B
5199 0
E4D03
What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
The geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves from the signal source are used to locate the source
A fixed receiving station plots three beam headings from the signal source on a map
Beam headings from several receiving stations are used to plot the signal source on a map
A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
C
5200 0
E4D04
Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction finding?
It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal
It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation
It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls
It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals
D
5201 0
E4D05
What is a sense antenna?
A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern
A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern
A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a omnidirectional reception pattern
A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a omnidirectional reception pattern
A
5202 0
E4D06
What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception in radio direction finding?
A log-periodic dipole array
An isotropic antenna
A circularly-polarized antenna
An Adcock antenna
D
5203 0
E4D07
What is a loop antenna?
A large circularly-polarized antenna
A small coil of wire tightly wound around a ferrite core
Several turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
Any antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
C
5204 0
E4D08
How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased?
By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure
By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure
D
5205 0
E4D09
Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable for a direction-finding system?
The broad-side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at the desired station
The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the desired station
The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the desired station
The high-radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for short-distance direction finding
B
5206 0
E4D10
What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding?
Homogeneous terrain
Smooth grassy terrain
Varied terrain
Terrain with no buildings or mountains
C
5207 0
E4D11
What is the activity known as fox hunting?
Amateurs using receivers and direction-finding techniques attempt to locate a hidden transmitter
Amateurs using transmitting equipment and direction-finding techniques attempt to locate a hidden receiver
Amateurs helping the government track radio-transmitter collars attached to animals
Amateurs assemble stations using generators and portable antennas to test their emergency communications skills
A
5208 0
E5A01
What is photoconductivity?
The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction
B
5209 0
E5A02
What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
It becomes temperature dependent
A
5210 0
E5A03
What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
It increases
It becomes temperature dependent
It stays the same
It decreases
D
5211 0
E5A04
What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when light shines on it?
It stays the same
It becomes temperature dependent
It increases
It decreases
C
5212 0
E5A05
What is an optocoupler?
A resistor and a capacitor
A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
An LED and a phototransistor
D
5213 0
E5A06
What is an optoisolator?
An LED and a phototransistor
A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when Exposed to light
An LED and a capacitor
An LED and a solar cell
A
5214 0
E5A07
What is an optical shaft encoder?
An array of neon or LED indicators whose light transmission path is controlled by a rotating wheel
An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is controlled by a rotating wheel
An array of neon or LED indicators mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded pattern
An array of optocouplers mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded pattern
B
5215 0
E5A08
What characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity change?
The capacitance
The inductance
The specific gravity
The resistance
D
5216 0
E5A09
Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when visible light shines on it?
Potassium nitrate
Lead sulfide
Cadmium sulfide
Sodium chloride
C
5217 0
E5A10
Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when infrared light shines on it?
Potassium nitrate
Lead sulfide
Cadmium sulfide
Sodium chloride
B
5218 0
E5A11
Which material is affected the most by photoconductivity?
A crystalline semiconductor
An ordinary metal
A heavy metal
A liquid semiconductor
A
5219 0
E5B01
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage?
An exponential rate of one
One time constant
One exponential period
A time factor of one
B
5220 0
E5B02
What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value?
One time constant
An exponential period of one
A time factor of one
One exponential rate
A
5221 0
E5B03
What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge?
One discharge period
An exponential discharge rate of one
A discharge factor of one
One time constant
D
5222 0
E5B04
The capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage after two time constants?
36.8%
63.2%
86.5%
95%
C
5223 0
E5B05
The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?
86.5%
63.2%
36.8%
13.5%
D
5224 0
E5B06
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series?
47 seconds
101.1 seconds
103 seconds
220 seconds
A
5225 0
E5B07
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel?
47 seconds
101.1 seconds
103 seconds
220 seconds
D
5226 0
E5B08
What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor?
47 seconds
80 seconds
103 seconds
220 seconds
C
5227 0
E5B09
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
0.02 seconds
0.08 seconds
450 seconds
1350 seconds
A
5228 0
E5B10
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
0.02 seconds
0.08 seconds
450 seconds
1350 seconds
B
5229 0
E5B11
How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
0.02 seconds
0.08 seconds
450 seconds
1350 seconds
C
5230 0
E5C01
What type of graph can be used to calculate impedance along transmission lines?
A Smith chart
A logarithmic chart
A Jones chart
A radiation pattern chart
A
5231 0
E5C02
What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
Voltage and current circles
Resistance and reactance circles
Voltage and current lines
Resistance and reactance lines
B
5232 0
E5C03
What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith chart?
Beam headings and radiation patterns
Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
Circuit gain calculations
C
5233 0
E5C04
What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith chart?
Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance
C
5234 0
E5C05
What type of chart is shown in Figure E5-1?
Smith chart
Free-space radiation directivity chart
Vertical-space radiation pattern chart
Horizontal-space radiation pattern chart
A
5235 0
Figure E5-1?
E51.BM_
E5C06
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the name for the large outer circle bounding the coordinate portion of the chart?
Prime axis
Reactance axis
Impedance axis
Polar axis
B
5236 0
Figure E5-1
E51.BM_
E5C07
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the only straight line shown?
The reactance axis
The current axis
The voltage axis
The resistance axis
D
5237 0
Figure E5-1
E51.BM_
E5C08
What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith chart?
Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center
Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
C
5238 0
E5C09
What are the curved lines on a Smith chart?
Portions of current circles
Portions of voltage circles
Portions of resistance circles
Portions of reactance circles
D
5239 0
E5C10
What is the third family of circles, which are added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?
Standing-wave ratio circles
Antenna-length circles
Coaxial-length circles
Radiation-pattern circles
A
5240 0
E5C11
How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
In portions of transmission line electrical frequency
In portions of transmission line electrical wavelength
In portions of antenna electrical wavelength
In portions of antenna electrical frequency
B
5241 0
E5D01
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor at 30 MHz?
20 + j19
20 - j19
19 + j20
19 - j20
A
5242 0
E5D02
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor at 5 MHz?
30 + j3
30 - j3
3 + j30
3 - j30
A
5243 0
E5D03
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
40 + j31,400
40 - j31,400
31,400 + j40
31,400 - j40
A
5244 0
E5D04
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4,000-ohm resistor at 500 kHz?
2490 ohms, /__51.5_degrees__
4000 ohms, /__38.5_degrees__
2490 ohms, /__-51.5_degrees__
5112 ohms, /__-38.5_degrees__
C
5245 0
E5D05
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor at 500 kHz?
318 - j400
400 - j318
400 + j318
318 + j400
B
5246 0
E5D06
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 50-ohm resistor and a 140-picofarad capacitor at 7 MHz?
162 - j50
212 - j162
50 - j162
50 + j162
C
5247 0
E5D07
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?
6.4 ohms /_53 degrees
5 ohms /_37 degrees
5 ohms /_45 degrees
10 ohms /_-51 degrees
B
5248 0
E5D08
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
Point 2
Point 4
Point 5
Point 6
B
5249 0
Figure E5-2
E52.BM_
E5D09
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
Point 1
Point 3
Point 7
Point 8
B
5250 0
Figure E5-2
E52.BM_
E5D10
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
Point 1
Point 3
Point 7
Point 8
A
5251 0
Figure E5-2
E52.BM_
E5D11
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and a 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
Point 1
Point 3
Point 5
Point 8
D
5252 0
Figure E5-2
E52.BM_
E5E01
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms, /__35_degrees__
141 ohms, /__45_degrees__
161 ohms, /__55_degrees__
181 ohms, /__65_degrees__
B
5253 0
E5E02
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor all connected in series?
100 ohms, /__90_degrees__
10 ohms, /__0_degrees__
10 ohms, /__100_degrees__
100 ohms, /__0_degrees__
D
5254 0
E5E03
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
240 ohms, /__36.9_degrees__
240 ohms, /__-36.9_degrees__
500 ohms, /__53.1_degrees__
500 ohms, /__-53.1_degrees__
D
5255 0
E5E04
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
500 ohms, /__37_degrees__
400 ohms, /__27_degrees__
300 ohms, /__17_degrees__
200 ohms, /__10_degrees__
A
5256 0
E5E05
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
240 ohms, /__36.9_degrees___
240 ohms, /__-36.9_degrees__
500 ohms, /__53.1_degrees__
500 ohms, /__-53.1_degrees__
A
5257 0
E5E06
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor at 30 kHz?
200 - j188
200 + j188
188 - j200
188 + j200
B
5258 0
E5E07
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm resistor at 10 kHz?
628 + j600
628 - j600
600 + j628
600 - j628
C
5259 0
E5E08
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microfarad capacitor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 50 kHz?
40 + j32
40 - j32
32 - j40
32 + j40
B
5260 0
E5E09
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
121 ohms, /__-25_degrees__
191 ohms, /__-85_degrees__
161 ohms, /__-65_degrees__
141 ohms, /__-45_degrees__
D
5261 0
E5E10
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
31 ohms, /__-15_degrees__
51 ohms, /__-25_degrees__
71 ohms, /__-45_degrees__
91 ohms, /__-65_degrees__
C
5262 0
E5E11
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
400 ohms, /__27_degrees__
500 ohms, /__37_degrees__
500 ohms, /__47_degrees__
700 ohms, /__57_degrees__
B
5263 0
E5F01
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?
The voltage or current associated with the resistive component
The voltage or current associated with the reactive component
The sum of the reactive and resistive components
The difference between the resistive and reactive components
A
5264 0
E5F02
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
The voltage or current associated with the resistive component
The voltage or current associated with the reactive component
The sum of the reactive and resistive components
The difference between the resistive and reactive components
B
5265 0
E5F03
What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates?
The horizontal and inverted axes
The vertical and inverted axes
The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
The phase angle with respect to its prime center
C
5266 0
E5F04
If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal line, what do you know about the circuit?
It has to be a direct current circuit
It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
It contains resistance and inductive reactance
It is equivalent to a pure resistance
D
5267 0
E5F05
Why would you plot the impedance of a circuit using the polar coordinate system?
To display the data on an "X-Y" chart
To give a visual representation of the phase angle
To graphically represent the DC component
To show the reactance which is present
B
5268 0
E5F06
What coordinate system can be used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance?
Maidenhead grid
National Bureau of Standards
Faraday
Rectangular
D
5269 0
E5F07
What coordinate system can be used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
Maidenhead grid
National Bureau of Standards
Faraday
Polar
D
5270 0
E5F08
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?
141 ohms /__-45_degrees__
100 ohms /__45_degrees__
100 ohms /__-45_degrees__
141 ohms /__45_degrees__
A
5271 0
E5F09
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
5.03 x 10(-5) ohms /__45_degrees__
141 ohms /__-45_degrees__
19,900 ohms /__-45_degrees__
141 ohms /__45_degrees__
B
5272 0
E5F10
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
173 - j100 ohms
200 + j100 ohms
173 + j100 ohms
200 - j100 ohms
C
5273 0
E5F11
In rectangular coordinates, what is the admittance of a circuit that has an impedance of 240 ohms at 36.9 degrees?
3.33 x 10(-3) - j2.50 x 10(-3) siemens
3.33 x 10(-3) + j2.50 x 10(-3) siemens
192 + j144 siemens
3.33 - j2.50 siemens
A
5274 0
E6A01
What is an enhancement-mode FET?
An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate
An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate voltage is zero
An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage
D
5275 0
E6A02
What is a depletion-mode FET?
An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current flows with zero gate voltage
An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage is zero
An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage
An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
A
5276 0
E6A03
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel MOSFET?
1
2
3
4
B
5277 0
Figure E6-1
E61.BM_
E6A04
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel MOSFET?
2
3
4
5
B
5278 0
Figure E6-1
E61.BM_
E6A05
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
2
4
5
6
B
5279 0
Figure E6-1
E61.BM_
E6A06
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
2
4
5
6
C
5280 0
Figure E6-1
E61.BM_
E6A07
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel junction FET?
1
2
3
6
D
5281 0
Figure E6-1
E61.BM_
E6A08
What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
Gate 1, gate 2, drain
Emitter, base, collector
Emitter, base 1, base 2
Gate, drain, source
D
5282 0
E6A09
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
1
2
3
6
A
5283 0
Figure E6-1
E61.BM_
E6A10
Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes?
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
To prevent the gate insulation from being punctured by small static charges or excessive voltages
D
5284 0
E6A11
What do the initials CMOS stand for?
Common mode oscillating system
Complementary mica-oxide silicon
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor
Complementary metal-oxide substrate
C
5285 0
E6A12
How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor?
They cannot be compared without first knowing the supply voltage
An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same
C
5286 0
E6B01
What is an operational amplifier?
A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency- modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF amplifier
A
5287 0
E6B02
What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp?
Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response
Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response
Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response
Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response
B
5288 0
E6B03
What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?
The external feedback network
The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage
The power supply voltage
The PNP collector load
A
5289 0
E6B04
What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?
The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the following stage
The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in a closed-loop condition
The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition
C
5290 0
E6B05
What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
100 ohms
1000 ohms
Very low
Very high
D
5291 0
E6B06
What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
Very low
Very high
100 ohms
1000 ohms
A
5292 0
E6B07
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier?
1
3
5
6
D
5293 0
Figure E6-2
E62.BM_
E6B08
What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator
An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input
C
5294 0
E6B09
What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop?
Wideband AF and RF power amplification
Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation
D
5295 0
E6B10
What is the name of a circuit that compares the difference of the output from a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and produces an error voltage that changes the VCO's frequency?
A doubly balanced mixer
A phase-locked loop
A differential voltage amplifier
A variable frequency oscillator
B
5296 0
E6B11
What is the capture range of a phase-locked loop circuit?
The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
The input impedance range over which the circuit can lock
The range of time it takes the circuit to lock
A
5297 0
E6C01
What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
12 volts
1.5 volts
5 volts
13.6 volts
C
5298 0
E6C02
What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
A high-logic state
A low-logic state
The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
A
5299 0
E6C03
What level of input voltage is high in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power supply?
2.0 to 5.5 volts
1.5 to 3.0 volts
1.0 to 1.5 volts
-5.0 to -2.0 volts
A
5300 0
E6C04
What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power-supply?
-2.0 to -5.5 volts
B. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
C. 0.0 to 0.8 volts
-0.8 to 0.4 volts
C
5301 0
E6C05
What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices?
Small size
Low power consumption
Low cost
Ease of circuit design
B
5302 0
E6C06
Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
Input signals are stronger
C
5303 0
E6C07
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
1
2
3
4
A
5304 0
Figure E6-2
E62.BM_
E6C08
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
1
2
3
4
B
5305 0
Figure E6-2
E62.BM_
E6C09
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
2
3
4
6
B
5306 0
Figure E6-2
E62.BM_
E6C10
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
1
2
3
4
D
5307 0
Figure E6-2
E62.BM_
E6C11
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a NOT gate?
2
4
5
6
C
5308 0
Figure E6-2
E62.BM_
E6D01
What is the name for the vacuum tube commonly found in amateur television cameras?
A traveling-wave tube
A klystron tube
A vidicon tube
A cathode-ray tube
C
5309 0
E6D02
How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon?
By varying the beam voltage
By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids inside the tube
By varying the beam current
By varying electromagnetic fields
D
5310 0
E6D03
What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waves are to be displayed on the screen?
Electromagnetic
Tubular
Radar
Electrostatic
D
5311 0
E6D04
What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off
D
5312 0
E6D05
If a cathode ray tube (CRT) is designed to operate with an anode voltage of 25,000 volts, what will happen if the anode voltage is increased to 35,000 volts?
The image size will decrease and the tube will produce X-rays
The image size will increase and the tube will produce X-rays
The image will become larger and brighter
There will be no apparent change
A
5313 0
E6D06
Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
The heater voltage
The anode voltage
The operating temperature
The operating frequency
B
5314 0
E6D07
Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
It can be used to make an audio delay line
It can be used as an analog-to-digital converter
It samples and stores analog signals
C
5315 0
E6D08
Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
It is used in a battery charger circuit
C
5316 0
E6D09
What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?
It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal
A
5317 0
E6D10
What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
A display that uses a crystalline liquid to change the way light is refracted
A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
B
5318 0
E6D11
What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices?
They consume low power
They can display changes instantly
They are visible in all light conditions
They can be easily interchanged with other display devices
A
5319 0
E7A01
What is a bistable multivibrator circuit?
An "AND" gate
An "OR" gate
A flip-flop
A clock
C
5320 0
E7A02
How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit?
None
One
Two
Four
C
5321 0
E7A03
The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit?
A free-running multivibrator
A bistable multivibrator
An OR gate
An astable multivibrator
B
5322 0
E7A04
How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
1
2
4
8
B
5323 0
E7A05
What is the characteristic function of an astable multivibrator?
It alternates between two stable states
It alternates between a stable state and an unstable state
It blocks either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and passes the other
It alternates between two unstable states
D
5324 0
E7A06
What is the characteristic function of a monostable multivibrator?
It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its original state
It is a "clock" that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
A
5325 0
E7A07
What logical operation does an AND gate perform?
It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if only one input is a logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
B
5326 0
E7A08
What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
D
5327 0
E7A09
What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any input is or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
A
5328 0
E7A10
What logical operation does a NOR gate perform?
It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output only when none of its inputs are logic "0"
C
5329 0
E7A11
What is a truth table?
A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true
A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that characterize the function of a digital device
A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp
C
5330 0
E7A12
In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?
A low level
A positive-transition level
A negative-transition level
A high level
D
5331 0
E7A13
In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1?
A low level
A positive-transition level
A negative-transition level
A high level
A
5332 0
E7B01
What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop
It multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
It divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
D
5333 0
E7B02
How many states does a decade counter digital IC have?
2
10
20
100
B
5334 0
E7B03
What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
It adds two decimal numbers
A
5335 0
E7B04
What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
An emitter-follower
Two frequency multipliers
Two flip-flops
A voltage divider
C
5336 0
E7B05
If a 1-MHz oscillator is used with a divide-by-ten circuit to make a marker generator, what will the output be?
A 1-MHz sinusoidal signal with harmonics every 100 kHz
A 100-kHz signal with harmonics every 100 kHz
A 1-MHz square wave with harmonics every 1 MHz
A 100-kHz signal modulated by a 10-kHz signal
B
5337 0
E7B06
What is a crystal-controlled marker generator?
A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of frequencies
An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's location relative to the inner and outer markers at airports
A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude can be varied over a wide range
A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
D
5338 0
E7B07
What type of circuit does NOT make a good marker generator?
A sinusoidal crystal oscillator
A crystal oscillator followed by a class C amplifier
A TTL device wired as a crystal oscillator
A crystal oscillator and a frequency divider
A
5339 0
E7B08
What is the purpose of a marker generator?
To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
To add time signals to a transmitted signal
C
5340 0
E7B09
What does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on?
The internal crystal reference
A voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying output
Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
Proper balancing of the power-supply diodes
A
5341 0
E7B10
How does a frequency counter determine the frequency of a signal?
It counts the total number of pulses in a circuit
It monitors a WWV reference signal for comparison with the measured signal
It counts the number of input pulses in a specific period of time
It converts the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency
C
5342 0
E7B11
What is the purpose of a frequency counter?
To indicate the frequency of the strongest input signal which is within the counter's frequency range
To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
To compare the difference between the input and a voltage-controlled oscillator and produce an error voltage
A
5343 0
E7C01
What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter?
The values of capacitances and resistances built into the op-amp
The values of capacitances and resistances external to the op-amp
The input voltage and frequency of the op-amp's DC power supply
The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply
B
5344 0
E7C02
What causes ringing in a filter?
The slew rate of the filter
The bandwidth of the filter
The filter shape, as measured in the frequency domain
The gain of the filter
C
5345 0
E7C03
What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?
Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC Elements
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
D
5346 0
E7C04
What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC active filter circuit?
Electrolytic
Disc ceramic
Polystyrene
Paper dielectric
C
5347 0
E7C05
How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
Restrict both gain and Q
Restrict gain, but increase Q
Restrict Q, but increase gain
Increase both gain and Q
A
5348 0
E7C06
What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp?
Bandpass characteristic
Desired current gain
Temperature coefficient
Output-offset overshoot
A
5349 0
E7C07
The design of a preselector involves a trade-off between bandwidth and what other factor?
The amount of ringing
Insertion loss
The number of parts
The choice of capacitors or inductors
B
5350 0
E7C08
When designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range and Q, what steps are typically followed when selecting the external components?
Standard capacitor values are chosen first, the resistances are calculated, then resistors of the nearest standard value are used
Standard resistor values are chosen first, the capacitances are calculated, then capacitors of the nearest standard value are used
Standard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is tested, then additional resistors are added to make any adjustments
Standard resistor and capacitor values are used, the circuit is tested, then additional capacitors are added to make any adjustments
A
5351 0
E7C09
When designing an op-amp RC active filter for a given frequency range and Q, why are the external capacitance values usually chosen first, then the External resistance values calculated?
An op-amp will perform as an active filter using only standard External capacitance values
The calculations are easier to make with known capacitance values rather than with known resistance values
Capacitors with unusual capacitance values are not widely available, so standard values are used to begin the calculations
The equations for the calculations can only be used with known capacitance values
C
5352 0
E7C10
What are the principal uses of an op-amp RC active filter in amateur circuitry?
High-pass filters used to block RFI at the input to receivers
Low-pass filters used between transmitters and transmission lines
Filters used for smoothing power-supply output
Audio filters used for receivers
D
5353 0
E7C11
Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in an amateur receiver?
In the IF strip, immediately before the detector
In the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker or phone jack
Between the balanced modulator and frequency multiplier
In the low-level audio stages
D
5354 0
E7D01
What is the phase relationship between the input and output signals of an inverting op-amp circuit?
180 degrees out of phase
In phase
90 degrees out of phase
60 degrees out of phase
A
5355 0
E7D02
What is the phase relationship between the input and output signals of a noninverting op-amp circuit?
180 degrees out of phase
In phase
90 degrees out of phase
60 degrees out of phase
B
5356 0
E7D03
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 is 1000 ohms and RF is 100 kilohms?
0.01
1
10
100
D
5357 0
Figure E7-1
E71.BM_
E7D04
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
1
0.03
38
76
C
5358 0
Figure E7-1
E71.BM_
E7D05
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
28
14
7
0.07
B
5359 0
Figure E7-1
E71.BM_
E7D06
What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-1 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
0.00021
9400
4700
2350
C
5360 0
Figure E7-1
E71.BM_
E7D07
How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?
It increases linearly with increasing frequency
It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
It does not vary with frequency
D
5361 0
E7D08
What essentially determines the input impedance of a FET common-source amplifier?
The resistance between the drain and substrate
The gate-biasing network
The resistance between the source and drain
The resistance between the source and substrate
B
5362 0
E7D09
What essentially determines the output impedance of a FET common-source amplifier?
The drain resistor
The input impedance of the FET
The drain supply voltage
The gate supply voltage
A
5363 0
E7D10
What will be the voltage at the output in the circuit shown in Figure E7- 1, if R1 is 1,000 ohms and RF is 1,000 ohms when -10 millivolts is applied to the input?
10 millivolts
B. 100 millivolts
C. -10 millivolts
-100 millivolts
A
5364 0
Figure E7- 1
E71.BM_
E7D11
What will be the voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-1 if R1 is 1000 ohms and RF is 10,000 ohms and 2.3 volts is applied to the input?
2.3 volts
23 volts
-2.3 volts
D. -23 volts
D
5365 0
Figure E7- 1
E71.BM_
E8A01
In a pulse-modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power much greater than its average power?
The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
A
5366 0
E8A02
What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system?
A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant
The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant
A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant
The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the voice waveform at that instant
C
5367 0
E8A03
In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary?
The number of pulses per second
Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs
D
5368 0
E8A04
In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary?
Pulse frequency
Pulse duration
Pulse amplitude
Pulse intensity
B
5369 0
E8A05
What is the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse?
Amplitude modulation
Frequency modulation
Pulse-width modulation
Pulse-height modulation
C
5370 0
E8A06
What duration and rate of pulses does a typical pulse modulation transmitter use?
5-micro second pulses at a 5-kHz rate
5-micro second pulses at a 1-kHz rate
1-micro second pulses at a 5-kHz rate
1-micro second pulses at a 1-kHz rate
D
5371 0
E8A07
How are the pulses of a pulse-modulated signal usually transmitted?
A pulse of relatively short duration is sent; a relatively long period of time separates each pulse
A pulse of relatively long duration is sent; a relatively short period of time separates each pulse
A group of short pulses are sent in a relatively short period of time; a relatively long period of time separates each group
A group of short pulses are sent in a relatively long period of time; a relatively short period of time separates each group
A
5372 0
E8A08
What common circuit employs a pulse-width modulator?
A passive audio filter
A switching regulator
An impedance-matching network
A flip-flop
B
5373 0
E8A09
What function does a pulse-width modulator perform in a switching regulator power supply?
It turns the switch transistor on and off at the proper time to Ensure smooth regulation
It increases and decreases the load current at the proper time to Ensure smooth regulation
It increases or decreases the frequency of the input voltage to Ensure that AC pulses are sent at regular intervals to the rectifier
It turns the rectifier on and off at regular intervals to avoid overheating the power supply
A
5374 0
E8B01
What digital code consists of elements having unequal length?
ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code
D
5375 0
E8B02
What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
Baudot uses four data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot uses one character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
Baudot uses six data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses one character as a shift code
Baudot uses seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code, ASCII uses one character as a shift code
B
5376 0
E8B03
What is one advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
It includes built-in error-correction features
It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text
It uses one character as a "shift" code to send numeric and special characters
C
5377 0
E8B04
What digital communications system is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
ACSSB
Packet radio
AMTOR
Spread spectrum
B
5378 0
E8B05
What type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use?
Each character is sent twice
The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
The receiving station checks the calculated frame parity against the transmitted parity
The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed
D
5379 0
E8B06
What type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use?
Each character is sent twice
The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS
The receiving station checks the calculated frame parity against the transmitted parity
The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed
A
5380 0
E8B07
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code Emission A1A transmission?
Approximately 13 Hz
Approximately 26 Hz
Approximately 52 Hz
Approximately 104 Hz
C
5381 0
E8B08
What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII Emission J2D transmission?
0 Hz
0.3 kHz
0.5 kHz
1.0 kHz
C
5382 0
E8B09
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hz shift, 1200-baud ASCII Emission F1D transmission?
1000 Hz
1200 Hz
440 Hz
2400 Hz
D
5383 0
E8B10
What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission?
15.36 kHz
9.6 kHz
4.8 kHz
5.76 kHz
A
5384 0
E8C01
What is amplitude compandored single-sideband?
Reception of single-sideband signal with a conventional CW receiver
Reception of single-sideband signal with a conventional FM receiver
Single-sideband signal incorporating speech compression at the transmitter and speech expansion at the receiver
Single-sideband signal incorporating speech expansion at the transmitter and speech compression at the receiver
C
5385 0
E8C02
What is meant by compandoring?
Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at the receiver
Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length modulation
Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a single-sideband signal
Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by converting it to a pulse-modulated signal
A
5386 0
E8C03
What is the purpose of a pilot tone in an amplitude-compandored single- sideband system?
It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver
It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver
It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered interference
It acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation characteristic of the band
A
5387 0
E8C04
What is the approximate frequency of the pilot tone in an amplitude- compandored single-sideband system?
1 kHz
5 MHz
455 kHz
3 kHz
D
5388 0
E8C05
How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a given frequency band for amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems over conventional FM-phone systems?
2
4
8
16
B
5389 0
E8C06
What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence?
Amplitude compandored single sideband
AMTOR
Time-domain frequency modulation
Spread-spectrum communication
D
5390 0
E8C07
What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Time-domain frequency modulation
Frequency compandored spread-spectrum
A
5391 0
E8C08
What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a very fast binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
Frequency hopping
Direct sequence
Binary phase-shift keying
Phase compandored spread-spectrum
B
5392 0
E8C09
What controls the spreading sequence of an amateur spread-spectrum transmission?
A frequency-agile linear amplifier
A crystal-controlled filter linked to a high-speed crystal switching mechanism
A binary linear-feedback shift register
A binary code which varies if propagation changes
C
5393 0
E8C10
Why are spread-spectrum communications so resistant to interference?
Interfering signals are removed by a frequency-agile crystal filter
Spread-spectrum transmitters use much higher power than conventional carrier-frequency transmitters
Spread-spectrum transmitters can "hunt" for the best carrier frequency to use within a given RF spectrum
Only signals using the correct spreading sequence are received
D
5394 0
E8C11
Why do spread-spectrum communications interfere so little with conventional channelized communications in the same band?
A spread-spectrum transmitter avoids channels within the band which are in use by conventional transmitters
Spread-spectrum signals appear only as low-level noise in conventional receivers
Spread-spectrum signals change too rapidly to be detected by conventional receivers
Special crystal filters are needed in conventional receivers to detect spread-spectrum signals
B
5395 0
E8D01
What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
Peak-to-peak voltage
Inverse peak negative voltage
RMS voltage
Peak positive voltage
D
5396 0
E8D02
What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope?
Peak-to-peak voltage
Inverse peak positive voltage
RMS voltage
Peak negative voltage
D
5397 0
E8D03
What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope?
Peak-to-peak voltage
RMS voltage
Average voltage
DC voltage
A
5398 0
E8D04
What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude in a symmetrical waveform?
1:1
2:1
3:1
4:1
B
5399 0
E8D05
What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?
Peak voltage
RMS voltage
An average reading power output meter
Resting voltage
A
5400 0
E8D06
To ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable power, what kind of meter would you use to monitor the output signal of a properly adjusted single-sideband transmitter?
An SWR meter reading in the forward direction
A modulation meter
An average reading power output meter
A peak-reading power output meter
D
5401 0
E8D07
What is the PEP output of a transmitter that has a maximum peak of 30 volts to a 50-ohm load as observed on an oscilloscope?
4.5 watts
9 watts
16 watts
18 watts
B
5402 0
E8D08
What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts
A
5403 0
E8D09
If an RMS reading AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak voltage?
46 volts
92 volts
130 volts
184 volts
D
5404 0
E8D10
If an RMS reading voltmeter reads 34 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak voltage?
123 volts
96 volts
55 volts
48 volts
D
5405 0
E8D11
What is the advantage of using a peak-reading voltmeter to monitor the output of a single-sideband transmitter?
It would be easy to calculate the PEP output of the transmitter
It would be easy to calculate the RMS output power of the transmitter
It would be easy to calculate the SWR on the transmission line
It would be easy to observe the output amplitude variations
A
5406 0
E9A01
What is an isotropic radiator?
A hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
A directional antenna which is aimed toward the tropical latitudes
An antenna high enough in the air that its directive pattern is substantially unaffected by the ground beneath it
A directional antenna whose radiation pattern can be aimed in any compass direction
A
5407 0
E9A02
Which of the following describes an isotropic radiator?
A grounded radiator used to measure earth conductivity
A horizontal radiator used to compare Yagi antennas
A theoretical radiator used to compare other antennas
A spacecraft radiator used to direct signals toward the earth
C
5408 0
E9A03
When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator?
When comparing the gains of directional antennas
When testing a transmission line for standing-wave ratio
When directing a transmission toward the tropical latitudes
When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
A
5409 0
E9A04
What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison for antenna measurements?
Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Bobtail curtain
Isotropic radiator
D
5410 0
E9A05
For what purpose would an isotropic radiator be used?
To compare the signal strengths of different transmitters at a distant point
As a reference for antenna gain measurements
As a dummy load for tuning transmitters
To measure the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line
B
5411 0
E9A06
How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic radiator?
About 1.5 dB
About 2.1 dB
About 3.0 dB
About 6.0 dB
B
5412 0
E9A07
How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
About 3.9 dB
About 6.0 dB
About 8.1 dB
About 10.0 dB
A
5413 0
E9A08
How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?
About 6.1 dB
About 9.9 dB
About 12.0 dB
About 14.1 dB
B
5414 0
E9A09
Which of the following antennas has no gain in any direction?
Quarter-wave vertical
Yagi
Half-wave dipole
Isotropic radiator
D
5415 0
E9A10
Which of the following describes the radiation pattern of an isotropic radiator?
A tear drop in the vertical plane
A circle in the horizontal plane
A sphere with the antenna in the center
Crossed polarized with a spiral shape
C
5416 0
E9A11
Which of the following describes the directivity of an isotropic radiator?
Directivity in the E plane
Directivity in the H plane
Directivity in the Z plane
No directivity at all
D
5417 0
E9B01
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
Unidirectional cardioid
Omnidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
D
5418 0
E9B02
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
Unidirectional cardioid
Figure-8 end-fire
Figure-8 broadside
Omnidirectional
A
5419 0
E9B03
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
Omnidirectional
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
C
5420 0
E9B04
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
Omnidirectional
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
D
5421 0
E9B05
What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/8-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
Omnidirectional
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 broadside to the antennas
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
D
5422 0
E9B06
What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
Substantially unidirectional
Elliptical
Cardioid unidirectional
Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas
B
5423 0
E9B07
Which of the following is the best description of a resonant rhombic antenna?
Unidirectional; four-sided, each side a half-wavelength long; terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
Bidirectional; four-sided, each side approximately one wavelength long; open at the end opposite the transmission line connection
Four-sided; an LC network at each vertex except for the transmission connection; tuned to resonate at the operating frequency
Four-sided, each side of a different physical length; traps at each vertex for changing resonance according to band usage
B
5424 0
E9B08
What is a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
An antenna resonant at approximately double the frequency of the intended band of operation
An open-ended bidirectional antenna
A unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
A horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two adjacent sides and the long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna
C
5425 0
E9B09
What are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio
High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain
Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size
Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency range
A
5426 0
E9B10
What are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna?
A large area for proper installation and a narrow bandwidth
A large area for proper installation and a low front-to-back ratio
A large area and four sturdy supports for proper installation
A large amount of aluminum tubing and a low front-to-back ratio
C
5427 0
E9B11
What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?
It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
It changes the radiation pattern from essentially bidirectional to Essentially unidirectional
It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
It decreases the ground loss
B
5428 0
E9C01
What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an amateur satellite station in earth operation?
Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite
Length of transmission line and impedance match between receiver and transmission line
Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or absence of RF amplifier stages
Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit
A
5429 0
E9C02
What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station in earth operation?
Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving antenna
Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, satellite transmitter power
A
5430 0
E9C03
What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur satellite station in telecommand operation?
Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio
Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity
Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving antenna
Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, satellite transmitter power
B
5431 0
E9C04
How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?
Gain does not change
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
Gain increases 6 dB
Gain increases 3 dB
C
5432 0
E9C05
How does the beamwidth of an antenna vary as the gain is increased?
It increases geometrically
It increases arithmetically
It is essentially unaffected
It decreases
D
5433 0
E9C06
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
10.1 degrees
20.3 degrees
45.0 degrees
60.9 degrees
B
5434 0
E9C07
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 30 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
3.2 degrees
6.4 degrees
37 degrees
60.4 degrees
B
5435 0
E9C08
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 15 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
72 degrees
52 degrees
36.1 degrees
3.61 degrees
C
5436 0
E9C09
What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 12 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator?
34.8 degrees
45.0 degrees
58.0 degrees
51.0 degrees
D
5437 0
E9C10
How is circular polarization produced using linearly polarized antennas?
Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes
Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective Elements in parallel planes
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven Elements in the same plane, fed 90 degrees out of phase
Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven Elements in the same plane, fed in phase
C
5438 0
E9C11
Why does a satellite communications antenna system for earth operation need to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation control?
In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth
Because the antennas are large and heavy
In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid terrestrial interference
To rotate antenna polarization along the azimuth and elevate the system towards the satellite
A
5439 0
E9D01
What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
B
5440 0
E9D02
What system matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
A
5441 0
E9D03
What impedance matching system uses a short perpendicular section of transmission line connected to the feed line near the antenna?
The gamma matching system
The delta matching system
The omega matching system
The stub matching system
D
5442 0
E9D04
What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the 20-meter wavelength band?
70 pF
140 pF
200 pF
0.2 pF
B
5443 0
E9D05
What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the 10-meter wavelength band?
0.2 pF
140 pF
200 pF
70 pF
D
5444 0
E9D06
What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A capacitive reactance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
C
5445 0
E9D07
What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
An inductive reactance
A capacitive reactance
The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
C
5446 0
E9D08
What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A very high impedance
A very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
The same as the generator output impedance
A
5447 0
E9D09
What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
A very high impedance
A very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
B
5448 0
E9D10
What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A very high impedance
A very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the output impedance of the generator
B
5449 0
E9D11
What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?
A very high impedance
A very low impedance
The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
